A full-length mock test for the UPSC Combined Recruitment Test for
Vice Principal and Principal, Directorate of Education, Delhi. 120
questions on the measured shape of the 11 December 2022 paper, scored on the real
formula, every answer explained afterwards.
GK & current affairs · Management/Finance · Digital literacy · Schemes
Q61–Q120
60
Measurement & Evaluation · Policy · Child-rights law
Composition, counted item by item
Not a target — the actual split of the 120 questions in this
paper, counted from the paper itself.
Cluster
Questions
Marks
Share
Measurement, Evaluation & Statistics
35
87.5
29.2%
English & Hindi language
20
50
16.7%
Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude
20
50
16.7%
Education policy & schemes
20
50
16.7%
Education & child-rights law
11
27.5
9.2%
GK, polity & current affairs
9
22.5
7.5%
Management & Financial administration
3
7.5
2.5%
Digital literacy
2
5
1.7%
Question formats
The real paper is mostly not plain single-correct, and neither is this one.
Format
Questions
Plain single-correct
51
Multi-statement ("how many are correct")
45
Statement-I and Statement-II
13
Match the following
8
Assertion and Reason
2
Data sufficiency
1
How to sit it
Sit this after Chapters 4–6. Policy and law are asked here at clause and section level, which is how this exam actually asks them.
One sitting, two hours, phone face down. A mock taken in pieces measures nothing. Mark every question you guessed.
Score it with the real formula — `2.5 × correct − (2.5/3) × wrong`. The number that matters is not what you knew; it is what you *kept* after the penalty.
Then read every explanation, including for the questions you got right. Each item names the trap it was built on and the chapter that teaches it, so a wrong answer converts straight into a revision instruction.
What your score means
Raw score / 300
Reading
220+
Ahead of the curve. Protect it with revision-sheet passes; do not chase new material.
190–219
On target. The 200–225 band is the reasoned estimate for a comfortable General-category interview call.
150–189
Close. Your marks are almost certainly leaking through negative marking rather than ignorance — check your wrong-answer count against your guess count.
Below 150
Go back to chapters, not to more mocks. A second mock before revision teaches nothing the first did not.
Score bands are our reasoned estimate. UPSC publishes no cut-off
for this recruitment, and nobody who tells you one has it.
Three questions from this paper, solved
Every one of the 120 items is written this way —
the answer, and why each of the other three options is wrong.
Q71
With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child, consider the following statements:
1. India ratified the Convention in 1992, some years after it was adopted by the UN General Assembly.
2. Under the Convention, a child means every human being below the age of eighteen years.
3. Freedom of expression of the child is one of the four guiding principles of the Convention.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer (c).
The Convention was adopted by the General Assembly in 1989 and India ratified it in 1992, so 1 is correct; and the Convention's own definition fixes childhood at below eighteen years, so 2 is correct. Statement 3 is the trap — the four guiding principles are non-discrimination, the best interests of the child, the right to life/survival/development, and respect for the views of the child. Freedom of expression is a substantive right under the Convention, but it is not one of the four guiding principles.
Trap: ch06 — candidates who know the Convention has "four principles" often fill the fourth slot with a right they remember rather than with respect for the views of the child.
Q51
With reference to the General Financial Rules, 2017, consider the following statements:
1. Goods up to ₹50,000 in value may be purchased without inviting quotations, on a certificate recorded by the competent authority.
2. Purchases above ₹50,000 and up to ₹5,00,000 are made through a duly constituted Local Purchase Committee.
3. Performance security is taken from all bidders along with their bids.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer (a).
The two thresholds are correctly stated as amended on 10 July 2024 — ₹50,000 and ₹50,000–₹5,00,000, doubled from ₹25,000 and ₹25,000–₹2,50,000. Statement 3 confuses two securities: Earnest Money / Bid Security (ordinarily 2–5% of estimated value) is taken from all bidders with the bid; Performance Security (Rule 171(i) as amended — 3–5% of contract value for goods and services, 3–10% for works ★) is taken from the winner after the award.
Trap: ch14 — swapping Bid Security and Performance Security, and forgetting that procurement of goods available on GeM is mandatory.
Q116
With reference to the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, consider the following statements:
1. A person with benchmark disability is one having not less than forty per cent of a specified disability.
2. The Act reserves not less than five per cent of the posts in every government establishment for persons with benchmark disabilities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (a).
Benchmark disability is not less than 40%. The reservation figures run the other way: 5 per cent of seats in government and government-aided higher education institutions (Section 32) and not less than 4 per cent of the vacancies in each group of posts in government establishments (Section 34) — the 1995 Act's figure was 3 per cent.
Trap: ch06 — "seats 5 per cent, vacancies 4 per cent"; the seats figure is the bigger one. The Act recognises 21 specified disabilities and gives free education to children with benchmark disabilities aged 6–18, against RTE's 6–14.
Sit the rest
11 full-length mock tests, both real 2022 papers solved, and
5,847 explained questions written for this exam.
