Vice Principal & Principal 2026 — 5,847 explained questions, 18 chapters and 13 full papers for the DoE Delhi CRT.Start reading
Principal Sarathi VP & Principal 2026

Mock paper 5 — The Final Rehearsal

A full-length mock test for the UPSC Combined Recruitment Test for Vice Principal and Principal, Directorate of Education, Delhi. 120 questions on the measured shape of the 11 December 2022 paper, scored on the real formula, every answer explained afterwards.

120questions, every one explained
300marks · 2.5 each
−0.83a wrong answer
77multi-statement, matching or A–R items

Sit this mock test All 11 mock tests

What is in this paper

QuestionsCountSection
Q1–Q2020Language — English and हिंदी
Q21–Q4020Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude
Q41–Q6020GK & current affairs · Management/Finance · Digital literacy · Schemes
Q61–Q12060Measurement & Evaluation · Policy · Child-rights law

Composition, counted item by item

Not a target — the actual split of the 120 questions in this paper, counted from the paper itself.

ClusterQuestionsMarksShare
Measurement, Evaluation & Statistics3587.529.2%
English & Hindi language205016.7%
Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude205016.7%
Education policy & schemes205016.7%
Education & child-rights law1127.59.2%
GK, polity & current affairs922.57.5%
Management & Financial administration37.52.5%
Digital literacy251.7%

Question formats

The real paper is mostly not plain single-correct, and neither is this one.

FormatQuestions
Plain single-correct51
Multi-statement ("how many are correct")45
Statement-I and Statement-II13
Match the following8
Assertion and Reason2
Data sufficiency1

How to sit it

  1. Sit this about a week before the exam, in one unbroken two-hour sitting. It is the hardest of the five. If you clear your target here, you are ready.
  2. One sitting, two hours, phone face down. A mock taken in pieces measures nothing. Mark every question you guessed.
  3. Score it with the real formula — `2.5 × correct − (2.5/3) × wrong`. The number that matters is not what you knew; it is what you *kept* after the penalty.
  4. Then read every explanation, including for the questions you got right. Each item names the trap it was built on and the chapter that teaches it, so a wrong answer converts straight into a revision instruction.

What your score means

Raw score / 300Reading
220+Ahead of the curve. Protect it with revision-sheet passes; do not chase new material.
190–219On target. The 200–225 band is the reasoned estimate for a comfortable General-category interview call.
150–189Close. Your marks are almost certainly leaking through negative marking rather than ignorance — check your wrong-answer count against your guess count.
Below 150Go back to chapters, not to more mocks. A second mock before revision teaches nothing the first did not.

Score bands are our reasoned estimate. UPSC publishes no cut-off for this recruitment, and nobody who tells you one has it.

Three questions from this paper, solved

Every one of the 120 items is written this way — the answer, and why each of the other three options is wrong.

Q69

Consider the following statements: 1. A test cannot be valid unless it is reliable. 2. A test that is highly reliable is necessarily valid. 3. The validity coefficient of a test can never exceed the square root of its reliability coefficient. 4. A reliability coefficient of 0.81 means that the test measures true ability to the extent of 90 per cent. How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. (a) Only one
  2. (b) Only two
  3. (c) Only three
  4. (d) All four
Answer (c).

Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct. Reliability is necessary but not sufficient for validity — a bathroom scale reading five kilograms heavy every time is perfectly reliable and wholly invalid — so statement 2 is wrong. Statement 3 states the ceiling: validity ≤ √reliability. Statement 4 is correct: "the extent to which a test measures true ability" is the index of reliability, √0.81 = 0.90, i.e. 90 per cent; the coefficient 0.81 is the proportion of true variance, a different statement.

Trap: ch01 — "measures true ability to the extent of" refers to the index of reliability (√r); reading the coefficient itself as that extent (81 per cent) is the error.

Q43

Consider the following statements: 1. Child Care Leave is admissible for a maximum of 730 days during the entire service. 2. One day of commuted leave is debited as two days of half pay leave. 3. Under the National Pension System, the Government's contribution is 14 per cent. 4. Casual leave is not a "leave" under the leave rules and cannot be combined with any other kind of leave. How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. (a) Only one
  2. (b) Only two
  3. (c) Only three
  4. (d) All four
Answer (d).

All four are correct. Child Care Leave is 730 days over the whole service, for the two eldest surviving children, at 100 per cent pay for the first 365 days and 80 per cent thereafter. Commuted leave is taken out of half pay leave at the rate of two HPL days for one commuted day, on full pay. Under NPS the employee contributes 10 per cent and the Government 14 per cent. Casual leave is treated as duty and cannot be combined with any other leave.

Trap: ch14 — the commonest errors here are treating CCL as an annual entitlement, reversing the commuted-leave ratio, and confusing the NPS Government share (14 %) with the UPS share (18.5 %).

Q79

Directions: Consider the following for the next three (03) items that follow: An item was administered during the try-out of an achievement test. The upper 27 per cent group and the lower 27 per cent group contained 50 students each. The number of students in each group choosing each response is shown below. The keyed response is B.

Response A B C D
Upper group (50) 8 40 2 0
Lower group (50) 6 20 16 8

Consider the following statements about this item: 1. On Ebel's criteria the item is a very good one and may be retained without revision. 2. Distractor A is functioning satisfactorily. 3. Distractor D is non-functional and must be replaced. How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. (a) None
  2. (b) Only one
  3. (c) Only two
  4. (d) All three
Answer (b).

Only statement 1 is correct: a discrimination index of 0.40 falls in Ebel's top band ("very good item — retain"). Distractor A attracts more of the upper group (8) than of the lower group (6), which means it misleads the abler candidates and needs rewriting, so statement 2 is wrong. A non-functional distractor is one chosen by nobody; D was chosen by eight students of the lower group and is therefore working exactly as a distractor should, so statement 3 is wrong.

Trap: ch02 — a good distractor attracts more of the lower group than of the upper; "chosen by nobody in the upper group" is not the same thing as "chosen by nobody".

Sit the rest

11 full-length mock tests, both real 2022 papers solved, and 5,847 explained questions written for this exam.

Sit mock paper 5 → Every paper in the library