Vice Principal & Principal 2026 — 5,847 explained questions, 18 chapters and 13 full papers for the DoE Delhi CRT.Start reading
Principal Sarathi VP & Principal 2026

Mock paper 9 — The Administrator's Paper

A full-length mock test for the UPSC Combined Recruitment Test for Vice Principal and Principal, Directorate of Education, Delhi. 120 questions on the measured shape of the 11 December 2022 paper, scored on the real formula, every answer explained afterwards.

120questions, every one explained
300marks · 2.5 each
−0.83a wrong answer
117multi-statement, matching or A–R items

Sit this mock test All 11 mock tests

What is in this paper

QuestionsCountSection
Q1–Q1414Language — English and हिंदी
Q15–Q3016Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude
Q31–Q4010GK & contemporary issues
Q41–Q488Digital literacy & IT law
Q72–Q798Pedagogy
Q80–Q12041Policy · Child-rights law · Measurement & Evaluation

Composition, counted item by item

Not a target — the actual split of the 120 questions in this paper, counted from the paper itself.

ClusterQuestionsMarksShare
Educational policies, measurement & evaluation41102.534.2%
Reasoning & Quantitative aptitude164013.3%
English & Hindi language143511.7%
Management & Financial administration123010.0%
Office procedure & school records1127.59.2%
GK & current affairs10258.3%
Digital literacy8206.7%
Pedagogy8206.7%

Question formats

The real paper is mostly not plain single-correct, and neither is this one.

FormatQuestions
Plain single-correct48
Multi-statement ("how many are correct")42
Statement-I and Statement-II10
Match the following9
Assertion and Reason5
Data sufficiency3
Sequencing3

How to sit it

  1. One sitting, two hours, phone face down. A mock taken in pieces measures nothing. Mark every question you guessed.
  2. Score it with the real formula — `2.5 × correct − (2.5/3) × wrong`. The number that matters is not what you knew; it is what you *kept* after the penalty.
  3. Then read every explanation, including for the questions you got right. Every wrong option in this paper is the output of a named misconception, and the explanation names it — so a wrong answer converts straight into a revision instruction.
  4. Do not skip out of fear of negative marking. Break-even accuracy is exactly 25%, which is the blind-guess rate on four options. A blind guess costs nothing in expectation; eliminating even one option makes guessing positive.

What your score means

Raw score / 300Reading
Q49–Q6012 | Management & Financial administration
Q61–Q7111 | Office procedure & school records
220+Ahead of the curve, on the heads the series had barely touched. Protect it with revision-sheet passes.
190–219On target. The 200–225 band is the reasoned estimate for a comfortable General-category interview call.
150–189Close. Check your wrong-answer count against your guess count before you conclude it was knowledge.
Below 150If the loss is concentrated in Q49–Q71, go to Chapters 13, 14 and 15 — not to another mock. Those 23 items are the ones the rest of the series never asked you.

Score bands are our reasoned estimate. UPSC publishes no cut-off for this recruitment, and nobody who tells you one has it.

Three questions from this paper, solved

Every one of the 120 items is written this way — the answer, and why each of the other three options is wrong.

Q48

A private unaided recognised school in Delhi proposes to adopt a private online assessment platform on which every pupil of Classes VI to VIII will hold an account carrying his name, roll number, photograph and marks. The notice to parents must describe the processing that the chosen platform will actually carry out.

Arrange the following steps in the order in which the Head of School must take them to comply with the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, once its provisions on notice, consent and children's data are in force:

  1. Settle the lawful purpose of the processing and identify precisely which fields of pupil data the platform will collect
  2. Examine what the platform does with the data and reject it if it directs targeted advertising at children or processes their data in a manner likely to cause a detrimental effect on their well-being
  3. Give the parents a notice stating what data is collected and for what purpose, and obtain the verifiable consent of the parent or lawful guardian
  4. Open the pupils' accounts and begin processing, keeping open a route by which consent may be withdrawn as easily as it was given

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. (a) 3 – 1 – 2 – 4
  2. (b) 1 – 3 – 2 – 4
  3. (c) 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
  4. (d) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4
Answer (d).

The order follows from the structure of the Act and from the condition in the stem. The school must first know what it is processing and why, because personal data may be processed only for a lawful purpose, and neither the platform nor the notice can be settled until the purpose and the data fields are — step 1. Next the platform is vetted against what Section 9 forbids outright: a Data Fiduciary shall not process a child's data in a manner likely to cause any detrimental effect on the child's well-being (s.9(2)), and shall not direct targeted advertising at children (s.9(3)). These are prohibitions that parental consent cannot cure, so an offending platform must be rejected before parents are approached; and because the stem requires the notice to describe the chosen platform's actual processing, the notice cannot be written until the platform is settled — step 2. Only then is the notice given and the verifiable consent of the parent or lawful guardian obtained — step 3. Processing begins last, with withdrawal of consent kept as easy as its giving — step 4. The order is 1 – 2 – 3 – 4.

Step 2 deliberately leaves out tracking and behavioural monitoring. Section 9(3) bars them too, but the bar is not absolute: the DPDP Rules, 2025, Fourth Schedule, exempt an educational institution from Section 9(1) and 9(3) where its processing is restricted to tracking and behavioural monitoring for its educational activities or for the safety of the children enrolled with it. The exemption does not reach targeted advertising or processing harmful to the child. On 1 November 2026 these duties are enacted but not yet in force: under the commencement notification of 13 November 2025, Sections 3–17 of the Act (notice, consent, Section 9 on children's data) and the Rules that operate them (Rules 3 and 5–16, including Rule 10 on verifiable parental consent and Rule 12 on exemptions) come into force in May 2027. That is why the stem says "once its provisions … are in force".

(a) is wrong because consent cannot come first. A notice cannot be written before the purpose and data fields are known, and consent given in ignorance of them is not informed consent.

(b) is wrong because it takes consent before vetting the platform. The stem requires the notice to describe the chosen platform's actual processing, and the Section 9 bars cannot be cured by consent, so the platform must be screened and settled before parents are approached.

(c) is wrong because it chooses the product before defining the purpose and seeks consent only after processing has begun. Consent obtained after processing starts is no consent, and the purpose must drive the choice of platform.

Q41

A Government school of the Directorate of Education engages a private company to install and run a biometric attendance system for its pupils. The school decides which particulars of each pupil are to be captured and for what purpose; the company stores and processes those particulars on the school's instructions and for no purpose of its own. Every pupil enrolled is below eighteen years of age.

Under the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, as enacted, which one of the following is correct?

  1. (a) The company is the Data Fiduciary, because it is the entity that actually holds the biometric records and carries out the processing, and the school, having no technical control over the database, is its Data Processor
  2. (b) Since every pupil whose data is processed is below eighteen, the school is by that fact a Significant Data Fiduciary, and must appoint a Data Protection Officer based in India and have an independent data audit conducted
  3. (c) The school is the Data Fiduciary and the company its Data Processor; and since every pupil is below eighteen, the Data Principal in respect of each pupil includes the parent or lawful guardian
  4. (d) The school is the Data Fiduciary, and the parent who gives consent for the child's biometric record is the Consent Manager through whom that consent may afterwards be reviewed or withdrawn
Answer (c).

The Act allocates the roles by who decides, not by who holds the data. A Data Fiduciary is the person who, alone or with others, determines the purpose and the means of the processing — here the school, which settles what is captured and why. A Data Processor is one who processes personal data on behalf of a Data Fiduciary — here the vendor, acting on the school's instructions and for no purpose of its own. A child is an individual below eighteen (s.2(f)), and the Data Principal is the individual to whom the personal data relates — where that individual is a child the term includes the parent or lawful guardian, so it is the parent who exercises the pupil's rights. Hence (c). Keep the definitions apart from the duties. Under the commencement notification of 13 November 2025, the definitions (Section 2) and the Board provisions are in force, but Sections 3–17 of the Act — Section 9 on children's data among them — and the DPDP Rules, 2025 that operate them (Rule 10 on verifiable parental consent, Rule 12 on exemptions) come into force only in May 2027. On 1 November 2026, therefore, Section 9 is enacted but not in force. And the Fourth Schedule exempts an educational institution from Section 9(1) and 9(3) where its processing is restricted to tracking and behavioural monitoring for its educational activities or for the safety of the children enrolled with it. That is why option (c) states only the definitions, which are settled.

(a) is wrong because the Data Fiduciary is whoever decides the purpose and means of processing, not whoever physically holds the data. The company holds the records only on the school's instructions, so it is the Processor; a school that outsources its system does not outsource its responsibility.

(b) is wrong because processing children's data does not by itself make anyone a Significant Data Fiduciary. That status is notified by the Central Government under Section 10 on factors such as volume, sensitivity and risk, and the India-based Data Protection Officer and independent audit follow only on that notification.

(d) is wrong because a Consent Manager is not the parent. It is a person registered with the Data Protection Board that runs an accessible, interoperable platform through which a Data Principal gives, manages, reviews and withdraws consent. The parent is part of the Data Principal, not the Consent Manager.

Q60

A Vice Principal was appointed to a post in Delhi with effect from 1 September 2025. Consider the following statements about his position as on 1 September 2026:

  1. His first annual increment could not have accrued earlier than 1 July 2026, an annual increment falling only on 1 January or 1 July and requiring six months of qualifying service to have been completed as on that date.
  2. He draws house rent allowance at the rate of thirty per cent of basic pay, Delhi being classified as an X city.
  3. His rate of house rent allowance has not been raised on account of the dearness allowance increases granted after dearness allowance crossed fifty per cent.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. (a) 1 and 2 only
  2. (b) 2 and 3 only
  3. (c) 1 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer (d).

Statement 1 is correct. Since the Seventh Central Pay Commission there are only two increment dates, 1 January and 1 July, and a Government servant must have completed six months of qualifying service as on the date on which the increment is claimed. On 1 January 2026 this officer had four months of service and so could not qualify; on 1 July 2026 he had ten months and did. Statement 2 is correct. The X classification covers cities of fifty lakh and above, Delhi is an X city, and the X-city rate of house rent allowance is thirty per cent of basic pay. Statement 3 is correct. The revised rates of 24, 16 and 8 per cent approved in 2017 were raised to 27, 18 and 9 per cent when dearness allowance crossed twenty-five per cent and to 30, 20 and 10 per cent when it crossed fifty per cent; the Government fixed the two triggers at those points, and no further trigger exists above fifty per cent. House rent allowance has therefore stood still through every subsequent instalment of dearness allowance. All three statements are correct. The HRA rates of 30/20/10 per cent and the absence of any trigger above fifty per cent dearness allowance hold under the Seventh CPC scheme as on 1 September 2026; they will change when the Eighth CPC's recommendations are implemented. Re-verify in October 2026.

(a) is wrong because it rejects statement 3. HRA rose only at the two triggers the Government fixed — DA crossing 25 per cent and 50 per cent — and has not moved with later DA instalments.

(b) is wrong because it rejects statement 1. Under the Seventh CPC increments fall only on 1 January or 1 July, not on the anniversary of appointment; with four months' service on 1 January 2026 the officer's first increment is 1 July 2026.

(c) is wrong because it rejects statement 2. Delhi is an X city and, since DA crossed 50 per cent on 1 January 2024, the X-city HRA rate has been 30 per cent; the 24 per cent figure of 2017 is out of date.

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